Financial Statements and Business Performance

Assessing Business Performance through Financial Statements

Module 8

Module 08: Assessing Business Performance through Financial Statements

Module 7 taught you to read a statement. Module 8 teaches you to judge it. Three methods are used: common size analysis, trend analysis and ratio analysis. The ratio half is organised around four profitability drivers and assembles them into a single build-up chain from return on total assets all the way to post-tax return on equity. It ends with risk: short-term solvency, long-term solvency and a credit score.

8.1 The three methods

MethodWhat it normalisesWhat it answers
Common size (percentage) analysisSize differences between companiesHow is the composition different?
Trend analysisSize differences across timeHow fast is each item growing?
Ratio analysisRelationships between line itemsWhy is profitability what it is?

8.2 Common size analysis

The problem is that companies differ in size, so absolute figures cannot be compared. The fix:

Formula: For the balance sheet, set total assets = 100 and express every line as a percentage of total assets. For the profit and loss account, set total income = 100 and express every line as a percentage of total income.

Asian Paints, common size balance sheet, two years:

SideObservation
Funds employedEquity's share of funding increased; current liabilities declined
AssetsEvery component declined except non-current investments

Reading: the company is reducing debt and no new capacity was created this year; surplus went into financial investments instead.

Asian Paints, common size profit and loss account:

LineMovement
Other income as a share of total incomeMarginally up
Material costDown 2.25 points
All other expensesMarginally up
Profit before taxMarginally up
Tax expenseDown 2.9 points
PAT marginUp 2.33 points

Answer: the improvement in PAT margin is driven mainly by tax, not by operations, which is exactly why Module 7 warned against reading PAT as an efficiency measure.

Common size analysis also drives inter-firm comparison, which is what all four case analyses in 8.15 to 8.18 do.

8.3 Trend analysis

Formula: Choose a base year, set every base-year value to 100, and express all later years relative to it.

Asian Paints, base year 2011 = 100, over roughly ten years:

Capital side

ItemTrendReading
Share capitalFlat throughoutNo fresh equity issued in a decade
Reserves / other equityUp nearly five timesGrowth funded entirely from retained profit
BorrowingsDeclining graduallyDeleveraging
Trade payablesUpMore raw material procurement as the business expands
Other liabilitiesUpExpansion

Asset side

ItemTrend
All items up except cash and bank balance
Fixed assetsUp, showing capacity added over the decade
Inventory and receivablesUp, as capacity and credit sales grew

Outcome

ItemMultiple over ten years
Sales2.84 times
Profit after tax3.42 times
Total assets4.69 times

Common trap: A 4.69 times increase in assets should normally produce a similar increase in sales. Fixed assets and sales track each other closely until 2018, then assets double in 2019 ahead of sales. That is not a failure; it means capacity has been added and it will take some time to reach full capacity utilisation. Read the lag, do not read it as inefficiency.

8.4 The ratio framework and the running example

Every ratio in this module is worked on one small two-year dataset. Memorise it; the whole chapter is built on it.

Balance sheetYear 1Year 2
Fixed assets90210
Inventory2030
Receivables3050
Cash and bank1010
Total assets150300
Equity100100
Loan40180
Payables (current liabilities)1020
Total150300
Profit and lossYear 1Year 2
Sales180600
Raw material100300
Employee cost4090
Other expenses1540
Depreciation921
Total expenses164451
PBIT16149
Interest520
PBT11129
Tax225
PAT9104

The headline ratio of the whole module is return on total assets.

ƒReturn on total assets
ROTA=PBITTotal assets\text{ROTA} = \frac{\text{PBIT}}{\text{Total assets}}
Where: PBIT is profit before interest and tax, the profit on which both lenders and shareholders have a claim.
Substituting
Year 1:16150=10.67%\text{Year 1}: \frac{16}{150} = 10.67\%
Year 2:149300=49.67%\text{Year 2}: \frac{149}{300} = 49.67\%

Answer: return on total assets jumped from 10.67% to 49.67%. The rest of the module explains how.

Memory hook: Why PBIT and not PAT in the numerator? Total assets are funded by both equity holders and lenders, and both have a claim on PBIT. Profit after tax belongs only to equity holders. Numerator and denominator must be consistent in every ratio you build.

The four profitability drivers, with leverage split in two:

DriverWhat it manages
Asset managementProductivity of the assets
Cost managementExpenses incurred while operating
Leverage management: payablesFree credit from suppliers
Leverage management: debtBorrowed funds
Tax managementReducing the tax incidence using tax planning provisions

Memory hook: ROTA does not specifically come under asset management; it is mainly affected by asset management and cost management. The framework's diagram sometimes suggests otherwise. ROTA sits at the junction of the first two drivers, and the leverage and tax drivers act above it.

8.5 Asset management

Asset management tree showing asset turnover ratio of 1.20 and 2.00, splitting into fixed asset turnover 2.00 and 2.86, current asset turnover 3.00 and 6.67, and below those inventory days of 45 and 24 and collection days of 61 and 30
ƒAsset turnover ratio
Asset turnover ratio=SalesTotal assets\text{Asset turnover ratio} = \frac{\text{Sales}}{\text{Total assets}}
Substituting
Year 1:180150=1.20\text{Year 1}: \frac{180}{150} = 1.20
Year 2:600300=2.00\text{Year 2}: \frac{600}{300} = 2.00

Every Re 1 invested in assets generated Rs 1.20 of revenue in year 1 and Rs 2.00 in year 2.

Drilling down, the asset base splits in two.

ƒFixed asset turnover
Fixed asset turnover=SalesFixed assets\text{Fixed asset turnover} = \frac{\text{Sales}}{\text{Fixed assets}}
ƒCurrent asset turnover
Current asset turnover=SalesCurrent assets\text{Current asset turnover} = \frac{\text{Sales}}{\text{Current assets}}
RatioYear 1Year 2
Fixed asset turnover180 ÷ 90 = 2.00600 ÷ 210 = 2.86
Current asset turnover180 ÷ 60 = 3.00600 ÷ 90 = 6.67

The two big current assets are inventory and receivables.

ƒInventory days
Inventory days=InventoryCost of sales per day\text{Inventory days} = \frac{\text{Inventory}}{\text{Cost of sales per day}}
Where: cost of sales per day (or total expenses per day) is the year's expenses divided by 365.
Substituting
Year 1:164365=0.45 per day,Inventory days=200.45=44.51\text{Year 1}: \frac{164}{365} = 0.45 \text{ per day}, \quad \text{Inventory days} = \frac{20}{0.45} = 44.51
Year 2:451365=1.24 per day,Inventory days=301.24=24.28\text{Year 2}: \frac{451}{365} = 1.24 \text{ per day}, \quad \text{Inventory days} = \frac{30}{1.24} = 24.28
ƒCollection days
Collection days=ReceivablesSales per day\text{Collection days} = \frac{\text{Receivables}}{\text{Sales per day}}
Where: sales per day is the year's sales divided by 365.
Substituting
Year 1:300.49=61 days\text{Year 1}: \frac{30}{0.49} = 61 \text{ days}
Year 2:501.64=30.42 days\text{Year 2}: \frac{50}{1.64} = 30.42 \text{ days}

Answer: inventory days fell from about 45 to about 24, and collection days halved from 61 to 30. The faster inventory moves, the sooner profit is realised.

Common trap (source discrepancy): The lecture's summary chart shows inventory days as 41 and 18 rather than 45 and 24, because it divides by sales per day instead of cost of sales per day. Use the formula above, in which the numerator (inventory, at cost) and the denominator (cost of sales, at cost) are consistent. Collection days is the one that legitimately uses sales per day, because receivables are recorded at selling price.

8.6 Cost management

Cost ratios table showing raw material to sales of 55.56% and 50.00%, employee cost to sales 22.22% and 15.00%, other expenses to sales 8.33% and 6.67%, depreciation to sales 5.00% and 3.50%, and interest expense to sales 2.78% and 3.33%
ƒCost ratio
Cost ratio=Total expensesSales\text{Cost ratio} = \frac{\text{Total expenses}}{\text{Sales}}
ƒProfit margin
Profit margin=PBITSales\text{Profit margin} = \frac{\text{PBIT}}{\text{Sales}}
Substituting
Cost ratio:164180=91.11%451600=75.17%\text{Cost ratio}: \frac{164}{180} = 91.11\% \quad \rightarrow \quad \frac{451}{600} = 75.17\%
Profit margin:16180=8.89%149600=24.83%\text{Profit margin}: \frac{16}{180} = 8.89\% \quad \rightarrow \quad \frac{149}{600} = 24.83\%

Answer: the company spent Rs 91 per Rs 100 of sales in year 1 and only Rs 75 in year 2, so profit margin nearly tripled.

The component cost ratios in the image show exactly where the saving came from:

Cost ratioYear 1Year 2
Raw material to sales55.56%50.00%
Employee cost to sales22.22%15.00%
Other expenses to sales8.33%6.67%
Depreciation to sales5.00%3.50%
Interest expense to sales2.78%3.33% (the only one to rise)

The identity that joins the first two drivers is this.

ƒROTA as turnover times margin
ROTA=Asset turnover ratio×Profit margin\text{ROTA} = \text{Asset turnover ratio} \times \text{Profit margin}
Substituting
Year 1:1.20×8.89%=10.67%\text{Year 1}: 1.20 \times 8.89\% = 10.67\%
Year 2:2.00×24.83%=49.67%\text{Year 2}: 2.00 \times 24.83\% = 49.67\%

Answer: both fundamental drivers improved, and their product reproduces ROTA exactly.

8.7 Leverage management, part 1: payables

Comparison of Return on Total Assets, PBIT over total assets, against Return on Capital Employed, PBIT over total assets less payables, with the note that if the company has no suppliers' credit ROTA equals ROCE

Suppliers do not charge interest for the credit period (although they may build an implicit rate into the price). Free capital should improve returns, and the ratio that captures it is return on capital employed.

ƒReturn on capital employed
ROCE=PBITCapital employed\text{ROCE} = \frac{\text{PBIT}}{\text{Capital employed}}
Where: capital employed is total assets less payables, so ROCE strips out the free credit that suppliers provide.
Substituting
Year 1:1615010=16140=11.43%\text{Year 1}: \frac{16}{150 - 10} = \frac{16}{140} = 11.43\%
Year 2:14930020=149280=53.21%\text{Year 2}: \frac{149}{300 - 20} = \frac{149}{280} = 53.21\%
ƒPayables leverage contribution
Payables leverage=ROCEROTA\text{Payables leverage} = \text{ROCE} - \text{ROTA}
Substituting
Year 1:11.4310.67=0.76 points\text{Year 1}: 11.43 - 10.67 = 0.76 \text{ points}
Year 2:53.2149.67=3.54 points\text{Year 2}: 53.21 - 49.67 = 3.54 \text{ points}

Answer: suppliers' credit added 0.76 percentage points in year 1 and 3.54 in year 2.

Memory hook: If a company avails no suppliers' credit, ROTA and ROCE are identical. The gap between them is the payables leverage, and it is the fastest thing to spot in a two-company comparison.

8.8 Leverage management, part 2: debt

ROCE to ROE relationship: ROE equals ROCE plus impact of debt, and ROE equals ROCE plus the quantity ROCE minus interest rate multiplied by the debt to equity ratio

Two inputs are needed.

ƒInterest rate (cost of debt)
Interest rate=Interest expenseLoan\text{Interest rate} = \frac{\text{Interest expense}}{\text{Loan}}
ƒDebt to equity
Debt to equity=DebtEquity\text{Debt to equity} = \frac{\text{Debt}}{\text{Equity}}
Year 1Year 2
Interest rate5 ÷ 40 = 12.50%20 ÷ 180 = 11.11%
Debt to equity40 ÷ 100 = 0.40180 ÷ 100 = 1.80
ƒSpread
Spread=ROCEInterest rate\text{Spread} = \text{ROCE} - \text{Interest rate}
ƒLoan effect
Loan effect=Spread×DebtEquity\text{Loan effect} = \text{Spread} \times \frac{\text{Debt}}{\text{Equity}}
Year 1Year 2
Spread11.43 − 12.50 = −1.07%53.21 − 11.11 = +42.10%
Loan effect−1.07 × 0.40 = −0.43%42.10 × 1.80 = +75.79%
ƒPre-tax return on equity
Pre-tax ROE=PBTEquity=ROCE+Loan effect\text{Pre-tax ROE} = \frac{\text{PBT}}{\text{Equity}} = \text{ROCE} + \text{Loan effect}
Year 1Year 2
Direct computation11 ÷ 100 = 11.00%129 ÷ 100 = 129.00%
Build-up11.43 − 0.43 = 11.00%53.21 + 75.79 = 129.00%

Answer: both routes agree exactly. Without any debt, year 2 pre-tax ROE would have stopped at 53.21%; debt added 75.79 percentage points to shareholders.

Common trap: The spread was negative in year 1, so debt destroyed value. The damage was small only because the debt-equity ratio was a modest 0.40. The debt-equity ratio does not create the benefit, it magnifies whatever sign the spread has. The lesson is: do not take a loan when the fundamental profitability drivers are weak. In year 2 the foundation was strong, so the same instrument did wonders.

8.9 Tax management

Unlike the other drivers, tax management measures how much tax was saved against the statutory benchmark. The corporate rate is taken as 30% for simplicity (the actual rate is 30% plus surcharge and levies).

ƒEffective tax rate
Effective tax rate=TaxPBT\text{Effective tax rate} = \frac{\text{Tax}}{\text{PBT}}
ƒTax saving against the benchmark
Saving=30%Effective tax rate\text{Saving} = 30\% - \text{Effective tax rate}
Year 1Year 2
Effective rate2 ÷ 11 = 18.18%25 ÷ 129 = 19.38%
Saving against 30%11.82 points10.62 points

Answer: the saving is slightly lower in percentage terms in year 2, but it applies to a far larger pre-tax profit.

Memory hook: "In tax management, just compare the percentage of taxes you paid vs the market rate."

Two alternative measures used in the case analyses:

  1. Compare actual post-tax ROE against pre-tax ROE × 0.7. If the actual exceeds the benchmark, tax planning added value.
  2. Deferred tax as a share of total capital. Since deferred tax carries no interest, it is an interest-free loan from the government, and this ratio measures how much of total capital it supplies.
ƒDeferred tax to total capital
Deferred tax share=Deferred taxTotal capital\text{Deferred tax share} = \frac{\text{Deferred tax}}{\text{Total capital}}
Where: total capital is equity plus debt plus the other long-term sources on the funding side.
ƒPost-tax return on equity
Post-tax ROE=PATEquity\text{Post-tax ROE} = \frac{\text{PAT}}{\text{Equity}}
Substituting
Year 1:9100=9%\text{Year 1}: \frac{9}{100} = 9\%
Year 2:104100=104%\text{Year 2}: \frac{104}{100} = 104\%

8.10 The complete build-up chain

Financial statement analysis summary chart showing post-tax ROE of 9% and 104%, pre-tax ROE of 11% and 129%, loan effect of minus 0.43% and 75.79%, ROCE of 11.43% and 53.21%, ROTA of 10.67% and 49.67%, asset turnover 1.20 and 2.00, profit margin 8.89% and 24.83%, and the supporting sub-ratios

This is the organising spine of the whole module. Read it bottom to top.

ƒThe build-up chain
ROTA+ payables leverageROCE+ loan effectPre-tax ROE taxPost-tax ROE\text{ROTA} \xrightarrow{+\text{ payables leverage}} \text{ROCE} \xrightarrow{+\text{ loan effect}} \text{Pre-tax ROE} \xrightarrow{-\text{ tax}} \text{Post-tax ROE}
StepYear 1Year 2
Asset turnover × profit margin1.20 × 8.89%2.00 × 24.83%
= ROTA10.67%49.67%
Add payables leverage (ROCE − ROTA)+0.76+3.54
= ROCE11.43%53.21%
Add loan effect (spread × D/E)−0.43+75.79
= Pre-tax ROE11.00%129.00%
Less tax
= Post-tax ROE9.00%104.00%

Memory hook: Four drivers, four steps. Asset and cost management make ROTA. Payables leverage makes ROCE. Debt leverage makes pre-tax ROE. Tax management makes post-tax ROE. Every case analysis in this module is nothing more than reading which of those four steps a company is winning.

Practical exclusions when computing these ratios:

  • Exclude capital work in progress from fixed assets. It is not yet commercially used, so it unfairly depresses fixed asset turnover.
  • Exclude exceptional items, which are one-time.

8.11 Short-term solvency (liquidity risk)

The question a supplier asks: I am giving 30 days' credit, and I am confident the customer will eventually pay, but will I be paid on the due date?

ƒCurrent ratio
Current ratio=Current assetsCurrent liabilities\text{Current ratio} = \frac{\text{Current assets}}{\text{Current liabilities}}
Substituting
Year 1:6010=6.00\text{Year 1}: \frac{60}{10} = 6.00
Year 2:9020=4.50\text{Year 2}: \frac{90}{20} = 4.50

A current ratio of 2 and above is considered good, so a decline from 6.00 to 4.50 is not a concern.

Where the "2" comes from. You trade in an item, buying two units a day at Rs 100 and selling them at Rs 110, with five days' credit taken and five days' credit given.

VersionCurrent assetsCurrent liabilitiesCurrent ratio
Both units bought on credit220 (day 1), 440 (day 2)...200, 400...1.10
One unit paid from your own capital, one on credit220, 440...100, 200...2.20

In the second version, on day 6 you owe Rs 100 to the day-1 supplier and two customers owe you Rs 110 each. Even if only one of the two pays, you can settle. The required probability of collection is therefore 50%, which is the fair-coin case.

ƒProbability of collection required
Probability of collection required=1Current ratio\text{Probability of collection required} = \frac{1}{\text{Current ratio}}

Memory hook: "If the probability of collection is 100%, then we do not have to be concerned about a current ratio of below 2." The benchmark is not a law; it is a translation of a collection probability. Asian Paints, with very low collection days, is safe at a current ratio well under 2.

8.12 Long-term solvency

Debt to equity. A ratio of 2 : 1 or lower was considered good a few decades ago. Today investors are comfortable up to 1 : 1, so an equity of 100 supports a maximum debt of 100.

Common trap: A universal prescription on debt to equity is incorrect. The nature of the industry matters most: infrastructure companies normally carry much higher debt. Capital structure is a corporate finance topic in its own right.

Debt service coverage ratio.

Debt Service Coverage Ratio equals PBDIT less taxes, divided by interest cost plus loan due for the current year, where PBDIT is profit before depreciation, interest and taxes
ƒDebt service coverage ratio
DSCR=PBDITTaxesInterest+Loan instalment due in the year\text{DSCR} = \frac{\text{PBDIT} - \text{Taxes}}{\text{Interest} + \text{Loan instalment due in the year}}
Where: PBDIT is profit before depreciation, interest and taxes, and the loan instalment is taken at 20% of the loan value, on the assumption of a five-year repayment.
Substituting
PBDIT=PBIT+Depreciation:Year 1=16+9=25,Year 2=149+21=170\text{PBDIT} = \text{PBIT} + \text{Depreciation}: \quad \text{Year 1} = 16 + 9 = 25, \quad \text{Year 2} = 149 + 21 = 170
Year 1Year 2
Numerator (PBDIT − tax)25 − 2 = 23170 − 25 = 145
Denominator (interest + 20% of loan)5 + 8 = 1320 + 36 = 56
DSCR1.772.59

Answer: DSCR of 1.77 and 2.59. A DSCR above 1 is considered adequate, so long-term solvency is good in both years. Long-term lenders use this ratio because it asks a cash question: can the year's earnings cover this year's interest plus this year's principal?

Common trap: Add depreciation back before deducting tax. The numerator is PBDIT, not PBIT, because depreciation is a non-cash charge and this ratio measures cash available to service debt. Skipping the add-back understates the numerator and makes a comfortable borrower look stretched. Here it would give 14 and 124 instead of 23 and 145, and a DSCR of 1.08 and 2.21 rather than 1.77 and 2.59. You may see that lower pair quoted in places; both readings clear the benchmark of 1, so the solvency conclusion is the same either way.

8.13 Credit score: the Altman Z-score

Altman Z-score formula with five ratios and their coefficients: working capital over total assets times 1.2, retained earnings over total assets times 1.4, EBIT over total assets times 3.3, equity over total debt times 0.6, and sales over total assets times 1.0

The coefficients transcribed as text, because they appear nowhere in the spoken lecture:

ƒAltman Z-score
Z=1.2(WCTA)+1.4(RETA)+3.3(PBITTA)+0.6(EquityTotal debt)+1.0(SalesTA)Z = 1.2 \left(\frac{\text{WC}}{\text{TA}}\right) + 1.4 \left(\frac{\text{RE}}{\text{TA}}\right) + 3.3 \left(\frac{\text{PBIT}}{\text{TA}}\right) + 0.6 \left(\frac{\text{Equity}}{\text{Total debt}}\right) + 1.0 \left(\frac{\text{Sales}}{\text{TA}}\right)
Where: WC is working capital, TA is total assets, RE is retained earnings (taken as other equity) and PBIT is profit before interest and tax.
RatioCoefficientDefinition used in this course
Working capital ÷ total assets1.2Working capital = current assets − current liabilities
Retained earnings ÷ total assets1.4Retained earnings taken as other equity
PBIT (EBIT) ÷ total assets3.3This is ROTA
Equity ÷ total debt0.6
Sales ÷ total assets1.0This is the asset turnover ratio
ƒWorking capital
Working capital=Current assetsCurrent liabilities\text{Working capital} = \text{Current assets} - \text{Current liabilities}

Worked on the running example.

RatioYear 1Year 2
WC ÷ TA(60 − 10) ÷ 150 = 0.3333(90 − 20) ÷ 300 = 0.2333
RE ÷ TA100 ÷ 150 = 0.6667100 ÷ 300 = 0.3333
PBIT ÷ TA16 ÷ 150 = 0.1067149 ÷ 300 = 0.4967
Equity ÷ debt100 ÷ 40 = 2.50100 ÷ 180 = 0.5556
Sales ÷ TA180 ÷ 150 = 1.20600 ÷ 300 = 2.00
Z1=1.2(0.3333)+1.4(0.6667)+3.3(0.1067)+0.6(2.50)+1.0(1.20)Z_1 = 1.2(0.3333) + 1.4(0.6667) + 3.3(0.1067) + 0.6(2.50) + 1.0(1.20)
=0.400+0.933+0.352+1.500+1.200=4.39= 0.400 + 0.933 + 0.352 + 1.500 + 1.200 = 4.39
Z2=1.2(0.2333)+1.4(0.3333)+3.3(0.4967)+0.6(0.5556)+1.0(2.00)Z_2 = 1.2(0.2333) + 1.4(0.3333) + 3.3(0.4967) + 0.6(0.5556) + 1.0(2.00)
=0.280+0.467+1.639+0.333+2.000=4.72= 0.280 + 0.467 + 1.639 + 0.333 + 2.000 = 4.72

Answer: Z = 4.39 in year 1 and 4.72 in year 2. The cut-off is 2.675, above which the probability of the firm turning sick in the near future is low. Both years pass, so long-term solvency is good.

Common trap: Do not read meaning into differences between two already-high scores. The Z-score is a threshold test against 2.675, not a ranking. A genuinely debt-free company produces an enormous equity-to-debt ratio which can push Z to 17 or even 80 or 90 without saying anything extra about its health. Kansai Nerolac scores 17.57 for exactly this reason.

8.14 Case 1: Asian Paints FY2019 versus FY2020

Every driver improved except one.

MeasureFY2019FY2020Verdict
ROTA23.74%25.94%up 2.2 points
Asset turnover1.221.29marginal
Profit margin19.48%20.08%up 0.6 points
Fixed asset turnover3.143.47better
Current asset turnover2.712.95better
Inventory days7377worse, the only decline
Collection days2824better
Raw material to sales59.59%57.07%better by 2.5 points
Employee cost to sales5.55%5.79%worse
Other expenses to sales15.89%16.71%worse
ROCE29.84%31.39%payables add about 6 points in both years
Debt to equity0.230.19moving towards zero debt
Cost of debt3.84%4.41%up
Loan effect6.01%5.07%smaller, because D/E fell
Pre-tax ROE35.85%36.46%
Post-tax ROE28.07%
Current ratio1.581.82better
Payable days7866paying suppliers faster
Z-score6.51comfortably above 2.675

Check the ROTA identity: 1.22 × 19.48 = 23.74 and 1.29 × 20.08 = 25.94. Both tie.

Tax management, method 1
Benchmark=Pre-tax ROE×0.7=36.46×0.7=25.52%\text{Benchmark} = \text{Pre-tax ROE} \times 0.7 = 36.46 \times 0.7 = 25.52\%

Actual post-tax ROE is 28.07%, so tax planning added 2.55 percentage points.

Tax management, method 2
Deferred taxTotal capital=282.6813,587=2.08%\frac{\text{Deferred tax}}{\text{Total capital}} = \frac{282.68}{13{,}587} = 2.08\%

Answer: for every Rs 100 of capital, Rs 2.08 comes from the government as an interest-free deferred tax loan.

Conclusion: the company improved on almost every driver. The one action item is inventory days rising from 73 to 77; management should find the root cause. The current ratio of 1.82 is below the benchmark of 2 but is not a concern, because collection days are very low and the probability of collection is correspondingly high.

8.15 Case 2: Asian Paints versus Kansai Nerolac (2024)

MeasureAsian PaintsKansai NerolacWinner
Revenue (Rs crore)30,6357,393AP is about four times bigger
ROTA27.41%12.96%AP, more than double
Asset turnover1.221.04AP, marginally
Profit margin22.48%12.50%AP, nearly double
Raw material to sales54.88%64.54%AP by more than 10 points
Employee cost to salesslightly higherKN, by under 2 points
Fixed asset turnover5.763.57AP
Current asset turnover2.121.61AP
Inventory days7893AP
Collection days4360AP
ROCE32.60%15.90%payables add about 5 for AP, 3 for KN
Cost of debt3.38%5.32%AP
Debt to equity0.190.04KN is effectively zero debt
Loan effect5.41%0.44%AP, because KN barely borrows
Pre-tax ROE38.02%16.34%
Effective tax rate24.69%39.72%
Tax planning impact+5.31 points−9.72 pointsAP
Current ratio2.343.48both above 2, both fine
DSCR61.6975.12both far above 1
Z-score6.7017.57both far above 2.675

Answer: Asian Paints' core competency is cost management, specifically raw material to sales at 54.88% against Kansai Nerolac's 64.54%. The likely cause is economies of scale: being four times larger, Asian Paints bargains harder with suppliers.

The benchmarking prescription. If you sit inside Kansai Nerolac, the single number to attack is raw material consumption. Better negotiation by the purchase department or better process technology from operations would lift profit margin, which lifts ROTA (margin × turnover), and the whole chain above it improves. Note also that Kansai's Z-score of 17.57 looks spectacular only because equity ÷ debt is 24.16, contributing 14.49 of the score. Ignore that difference; both simply clear 2.675.

8.16 Case 3: Infosys versus TCS

MeasureInfosysTCSNote
Revenue (Rs crore)1,36,3502,09,632
ROTA31.52%48.89%TCS much higher
Profit margin26.57%28.26%gap under 2 points
Asset turnover1.191.73the real gap
Fixed asset turnover9.0013.53TCS
Current asset turnover1.822.13TCS
Inventory daysnot applicablenot applicablepure services carry no inventory
Collection days7183Infosys better
ROCE36.71%69.80%
Payables leverage (ROCE − ROTA)about 5 pointsabout 21 pointsthe single biggest driver
Cost of debt1.58%5.28%
Debt to equity0.220.18
Loan effect7.58%11.40%
Current ratio2.622.20both fine
Payable days1150
Z-score6.368.02both above 2.675

Answer: the difference between the two is asset management, not cost management. Their margins are within two points, but TCS turns its assets over at 1.73 against Infosys' 1.19.

The single biggest driver, though, is payables leverage. TCS's current liabilities are Rs 43,061 crore against Infosys' Rs 21,786 crore, driven mainly by much larger trade payables, and that produces a 21-point jump from ROTA to ROCE where Infosys gets only 5.

A caution on cost comparison. Employee cost is 49% of sales for TCS against 61.44% for Infosys, but TCS's other expenses are proportionately far larger (Rs 40,026 crore against Infosys' Rs 6,508 crore). The likely explanation is outsourced manpower, which is booked as an expense rather than an employee cost. Add the two together (about 69% for TCS, about 65% for Infosys) and the apparent advantage reverses. Always check whether two companies classify the same economic cost under the same head.

Common trap: This framework does not apply to banks. Many of these ratios are meaningless for a banking company, which needs a separate framework.

8.17 Case 4: Apollo Hospitals versus Narayana Hrudayalaya (2024)

Hospitals combine manufacturing and service characteristics. Apollo is about four times larger by assets but earns only about twice the revenue, which is the whole story.

MeasureApollo HospitalsNarayana HrudayalayaWinner
ROTA12.72%15.97%NH, despite being a quarter the size
Asset turnover0.600.97NH
Profit marginhigherlowerApollo
Raw material (consumables) to sales27.48%24.18%NH
Employee cost to salesabout 20%about 20%level
Other expenses to sales28.21%39%Apollo by about 11 points
Fixed asset turnover1.212.21NH
Current asset turnoverabout 2.0about 4.2NH
Inventory days88level
Collection days4121NH
ROCE14.27%19.43%payables add 1.5 for Apollo, 3.5 for NH
Debt to equity0.430.56the only genuinely levered pair in the course
Cost of debt7.46%5.26%NH
Loan effect2.96%about 8%NH
Pre-tax ROE17.23%about 27%
Post-tax ROE13.10%23.07%
Tax planning impact+1.04 points+3.92 pointsNH
Tax working, both companies
Apollo:17.23×0.7=12.06%,actual 13.10%,gain=1.04 points\text{Apollo}: 17.23 \times 0.7 = 12.06\%, \quad \text{actual } 13.10\%, \quad \text{gain} = 1.04 \text{ points}
NH:about 27×0.7=19.15%,actual 23.07%,gain=3.92 points\text{NH}: \text{about } 27 \times 0.7 = 19.15\%, \quad \text{actual } 23.07\%, \quad \text{gain} = 3.92 \text{ points}

Answer: Apollo's core strength is cost management; Narayana Hrudayalaya's is asset management. Read the other way round: NH must attack other expenses (39% of sales, and the note discloses about 20 line items to work through), while Apollo must attack fixed asset turnover and collection days, the latter driven by slow processing of insurance claims.

Note also that neither hospital leverages payables much, because their largest cost is employee expense and employees do not extend credit days.

8.18 Summary

  • Three methods: common size (normalise for size), trend (normalise for time), ratio (explain profitability).
  • Common size: total assets = 100 on the balance sheet, total income = 100 on the P&L. Trend: base year = 100.
  • Ratio analysis rests on four drivers: asset management, cost management, leverage management (payables and debt) and tax management. Return on total assets
ƒROTA
ROTA=PBITTotal assets=Asset turnover×Profit margin\text{ROTA} = \frac{\text{PBIT}}{\text{Total assets}} = \text{Asset turnover} \times \text{Profit margin}

PBIT is used because total assets are funded by both lenders and shareholders, and both have a claim on it.

Return on capital employed and payables leverage
ROCE=PBITTotal assetsPayables,\text{ROCE} = \frac{\text{PBIT}}{\text{Total assets} - \text{Payables}},
Payables leverage=ROCEROTA\text{Payables leverage} = \text{ROCE} - \text{ROTA}
Loan effect and pre-tax return on equity
Loan effect=(ROCEInterest rate)×DebtEquity,\text{Loan effect} = (\text{ROCE} - \text{Interest rate}) \times \frac{\text{Debt}}{\text{Equity}},
Pre-tax ROE=ROCE+Loan effect\text{Pre-tax ROE} = \text{ROCE} + \text{Loan effect}
  • Do not borrow when the fundamental drivers are weak; the debt-equity ratio magnifies a negative spread just as readily as a positive one.
  • Tax management: effective rate against a 30% benchmark, or post-tax ROE against pre-tax ROE × 0.7, or deferred tax over total capital.
  • Short-term risk: current ratio, benchmark 2, and Probability of collection required=1Current ratio\text{Probability of collection required} = \frac{1}{\text{Current ratio}}. A low ratio is acceptable when collection is near certain.
  • Long-term risk: debt to equity (industry dependent), DSCR=PBDITTaxesInterest+Instalment\text{DSCR} = \frac{\text{PBDIT} - \text{Taxes}}{\text{Interest} + \text{Instalment}} with the instalment at 20% of the loan, benchmark above 1, and the Altman Z-score with coefficients 1.2, 1.4, 3.3, 0.6, 1.0 against a cut-off of 2.675.
  • Exclude capital work in progress and exceptional items from performance analysis, and do not apply this framework to banks.
  • Across the four case analyses the diagnosis is always the same question: which of the four drivers is this company winning? Asian Paints wins on cost, TCS on assets (and hugely on payables leverage), Apollo on cost, Narayana Hrudayalaya on assets.